Author Topic: Human Language  (Read 603 times)

0 Members and 1 Guest are viewing this topic.

Offline Skeptress

  • Too Much Spare Time
  • ********
  • Posts: 7841
  • Arrested for voting.
Re: Human Language
« Reply #15 on: Jun 16, 2012, 11:26:02 AM »
btw i agree that human language is very finite.  i just dont agree that nothing is infinite.

I disagree that it is very finite.  Human language is constantly evolving and creating.  If there is only a 2 point scale then you would have to say infinite because we haven't reached it's limits and imho can't.  Is any one language finite?  Yes because there are only so many phonemes within a language, however languages are constantly borrowing from other languages as needed therefor expanding the language.

Source: masters degree in applied linguistics, ESL teacher, mother

I really can't argue with those credentials lol.

I guess a different way to look at this question is... at any one given point in time, there can only be a finite amount of words/symbols/sounds that can be used in a single language.  Sure you can keep adding more and more words to a language but if no one knows what that word means than is it really part of that language?

If a tree falls in a forest...

My argument was and is if it is only a dichotomy then finite is not the correct answer therefor it must be the second.  However, I don't believe it is a dichotomy.
"The America I loved still exists at the front desks of our public libraries."  -Kurt Vonnegut

Formerly known as funda62.

Offline drphilgood

  • Off to a Start
  • *
  • Posts: 83
Re: Human Language
« Reply #16 on: Jun 16, 2012, 12:08:08 PM »
so you're saying its not black or white, right?  if it's not then what is it?

Offline TalkingBook

  • Well Established
  • *****
  • Posts: 1547
  • Superstition ain't the way...
Re: Human Language
« Reply #17 on: Jun 16, 2012, 12:16:13 PM »
The question is senseless without first providing a specific definition for 'infinite' with regards to language. In one sense, language is at least theoretically infinite if used to describe any infinite set. For example, "one, two, three ... n+1" or the set of made up names. Another sense in which language is infinite is its ability to string along sentences without end - "I said that Bob said that Tom said..." (there is debate about whether or not this applies to all languages, but it certainly applies to the vast majority that we know of).

Using either 'infinite' or 'finite' to describe language as a whole is senseless; in any case, it's going to be describing one facet of language, and necessarily glossing over most others. It's an attempt to provide a simple label for an amazing complex process.
"Truth gains more even by the errors of one who, with due study, and preparation, thinks for himself, than by the true opinions of those who only hold them because they do not suffer themselves to think." ~John Stuart Mill, On Liberty (1859)

Offline benschwab

  • Off to a Start
  • *
  • Posts: 47
  • At-least Marginally Better than a Head Injury
Re: Human Language
« Reply #18 on: Jun 16, 2012, 01:27:18 PM »
The question may be poorly put and I fail to see the interest in the particular issue.  A question such as "How flexible is human language in discussing ideas humans may develop?" I think has a lot more value even if there isn't a simple answer.

Argument that language is finite:

1)  Humans will exist for a bounded period of time (the Gibbs free energy of the universe is constantly decreasing and going to zero.  Eventually the Gibbs free energy available locally to humans will not be enough to sustain us.).

2)  It takes a finite period of time to express one idea.

3)  Each human can only express a finite number of ideas simultaneously.

4)  There are always a finite number of humans in existence at any one time.

5)  Each individual human has a bounded lifespan.

6)  1+4 means that there will only be a finite number of humans ever in existence.

7)  1+6+5 means that there will be a bounded period of time for a finite number of humans to express ideas.

8)  2+3+7 means that only a finite number of ideas (or any expression) will be expressed by humans ever.

Argument that language is infinite:

1)  It may be possible for humans to invent a way to effectively (within reason) express any idea an individual will have.

2)  There may be an infinite number of ideas a single human could potentially come up with.

3)  If both 1 and 2 are true then there are an infinite number of potential ideas that human language can describe.

It seams to my that while the the number of ideas that are potentially expressible by humans may be infinite, only a finite number of them will ever be expressed with language.

Thus the answer to the original question seams to be: yes.
« Last Edit: Jun 16, 2012, 01:30:30 PM by benschwab »
Oh Yeah!

Offline Skeptress

  • Too Much Spare Time
  • ********
  • Posts: 7841
  • Arrested for voting.
Re: Human Language
« Reply #19 on: Jun 17, 2012, 12:26:26 AM »
What TalkingBook said.  Also I don't see why it is necessary to argue for language to be finite.  You might as well be arguing that the human ability to create is finite.  Is it?  Will there come a time when all possible symphonies have been written, when all possible books have been written, when all possible paintings have been painted?
"The America I loved still exists at the front desks of our public libraries."  -Kurt Vonnegut

Formerly known as funda62.

Offline Plastique

  • Frequent Poster
  • ******
  • Posts: 2085
Re: Human Language
« Reply #20 on: Jun 17, 2012, 02:41:04 AM »
Also I don't see why it is necessary to argue for language to be finite.

In another thread he said he was too limited by language to explain God. Our-paltry-language-couldn't-even-begin-to-describe-the-complicated-and-profound-truth-of-my-beliefs-therefore-God.

Offline lorryfach

  • Seasoned Contributor
  • ****
  • Posts: 592
    • Altered Sky
Re: Human Language
« Reply #21 on: Jun 17, 2012, 04:39:11 AM »
Also I don't see why it is necessary to argue for language to be finite.

In another thread he said he was too limited by language to explain God. Our-paltry-language-couldn't-even-begin-to-describe-the-complicated-and-profound-truth-of-my-beliefs-therefore-God.
Sounds like: "It's a theist thing. You wouldn't understand."
Hej. - http://www.facebook.com/lorryfach - http://twitter.com/#/lorryfach
lorryfach on Draw Something/Words With Friends/wordfeud (EN or DK)

Offline arthwollipot

  • Well Established
  • *****
  • Posts: 1834
  • Observer of Phenomena
    • arthwollipot.com
Re: Human Language
« Reply #22 on: Jun 17, 2012, 06:07:42 AM »
Nothing can be literally infinite.

thats a whole nother thread lol

Not really. You've asked whether human language is infinite or not. The answer is clearly not, since nothing can be literally infinite.

are you familiar with a color wheel?

I am very familiar with a colour wheel. Humans can differentiate between approximately 10 million different colours. That's a very large number, but it's an awfully long way from being infinite.
Do or do not. There is no spoon.

Only Zuul.

Offline arthwollipot

  • Well Established
  • *****
  • Posts: 1834
  • Observer of Phenomena
    • arthwollipot.com
Re: Human Language
« Reply #23 on: Jun 17, 2012, 06:08:15 AM »
btw i agree that human language is very finite.  i just dont agree that nothing is infinite.

Can you name one thing that can be demonstrated to exist that is infinite?
Do or do not. There is no spoon.

Only Zuul.

Offline benschwab

  • Off to a Start
  • *
  • Posts: 47
  • At-least Marginally Better than a Head Injury
Re: Human Language
« Reply #24 on: Jun 17, 2012, 07:46:54 AM »
I am very familiar with a colour wheel. Humans can differentiate between approximately 10 million different colours. That's a very large number, but it's an awfully long way from being infinite.

Why should one limit oneself to what humans can differentiate between?

There are an infinite number of points along any ruler.  As alluded to above there are an infinite number of possible symphonies that can be written.  There are an infinite number of possible deflection angles in a collision experiment.  There are an infinite number of integers.  Gravitational attraction approaches infinity as one approaches the singularity of a black hole.

The argument that language is finite because infinite does not exist is unsound because of the false premise.  One could argue that language is finite because humans lack the capacity for infinite creativity.  This argument is debatable in large part because the terms that are being used are not defined very well.

In my estimation this is the main problem with the original question.  I'm using the definitions in mathematics for finite and infinite because those concepts are well defined though which particular definitions apply isn't clear because I don't know what Mx. Drphilgood means by human language.

I still fail to see the significance of his or her question.  I also think trying to answer the specific question distracts from some of the more interesting discussions (which have been occurring) such as "how expansive is the use of human language in describing ideas humans may have?"  I am completely unqualified to answer that question though I would enjoy a discussion on it.

Also I don't see why it is necessary to argue for language to be finite.

In another thread he said he was too limited by language to explain God. Our-paltry-language-couldn't-even-begin-to-describe-the-complicated-and-profound-truth-of-my-beliefs-therefore-God.

This doesn't necessitate that one need to argue that language is finite.  Even if human language can possibly describe an infinite number of ideas, that does not preclude there existing ideas that cannot be described by human language.  An argument that states that because there exists ideas that human language cannot describe, God must be one of those ideas and therefore God must exist is a god of the gaps argument and is thus fallacious.

I think it is an interesting philosophical question to ask how well human language can describe an omnipresent, omniscient, omnipotent being.  I think human language is incapable of describing an hypothetical being such as this completely and with complete accuracy and precision.  A consequence of this is that any person or thing claiming to be able describe such a being in this way with human language is wrong.

----

I'm sorry if my response has come across mean spirited.  I really do think a lack of commonality in our definitions for the concepts we are discussing is causing miscommunication and confusion and that can get frustrating.  It doesn't help when the original question is far from clear and the reason for asking it is rather foolish.  There are interesting concepts to discuss here and even other concepts that have been brought up that one can discuss.

What is the meaning of infinity in human experience?

What is the meaning of infinity in mathematics?

What is the meaning of infinity in physics?

What are the limitations of human language?

What is the relationship between the limitations of human language and in human ideation?

How expansive is human language in trying to describe ideas humans form?

All of these are interesting questions and there are others but if I'm talking about infinity in mathematics and in physics while someone else is talking about infinity in human experience we will be talking past each other which isn't very productive.  I'm sorry if I've been rude or if I've insulted or offended any of you.  That was not my intention.
Oh Yeah!

Offline arthwollipot

  • Well Established
  • *****
  • Posts: 1834
  • Observer of Phenomena
    • arthwollipot.com
Re: Human Language
« Reply #25 on: Jun 18, 2012, 02:08:22 AM »
I am very familiar with a colour wheel. Humans can differentiate between approximately 10 million different colours. That's a very large number, but it's an awfully long way from being infinite.

Why should one limit oneself to what humans can differentiate between?

There are an infinite number of points along any ruler.  As alluded to above there are an infinite number of possible symphonies that can be written.  There are an infinite number of possible deflection angles in a collision experiment.  There are an infinite number of integers.  Gravitational attraction approaches infinity as one approaches the singularity of a black hole.

That's a mathematical infinity, not an actual one. I was asking for something that can be demonstrated to exist that is infinite. Not a concept or an idea, but a thing.

And for the record, there aren't an infinite number of points on a ruler, because there is a smallest possible distance - the Planck Length (1.616199(97)×10−35 metres), and any distance consists of a finite number of them. There aren't an infinite number of colours, because the frequency of light is quantized - there is a minimum amount of difference - and the difference between two colours consists of a finite number of those jumps. The gravitational field near a black hole approaches infinity, but doesn't actually reach it because the closest you can get to a singularity is the Planck Length (at which point the gravitational field is extremely high but not infinite), and that is hidden from all exploration by the black hole's event horizon.

Etc.
Do or do not. There is no spoon.

Only Zuul.

Offline Johnny Slick

  • Jesus Christ HI PANDA U R HOT
  • Reef Tank Owner
  • *********
  • Posts: 8645
  • Evilution's Worst Nightmare
Re: Human Language
« Reply #26 on: Jun 18, 2012, 02:38:45 AM »
Great post, arthwollipot. Seriously.
"Ignorance is like a delicate exotic fruit; touch it and the bloom is gone." - Oscar Wilde

Quote from: Schlock Treatment, Episode 73
There is only one Johnny Slick, and he is a son of a [redacted].
Quote
You're really good at bad ideas.

Offline Plastique

  • Frequent Poster
  • ******
  • Posts: 2085
Re: Human Language
« Reply #27 on: Jun 18, 2012, 03:30:29 AM »
And for the record, there aren't an infinite number of points on a ruler, because there is a smallest possible distance - the Planck Length (1.616199(97)×10−35 metres), and any distance consists of a finite number of them. There aren't an infinite number of colours, because the frequency of light is quantized - there is a minimum amount of difference - and the difference between two colours consists of a finite number of those jumps. The gravitational field near a black hole approaches infinity, but doesn't actually reach it because the closest you can get to a singularity is the Planck Length (at which point the gravitational field is extremely high but not infinite), and that is hidden from all exploration by the black hole's event horizon.

Jesus Christ, that's really interesting. So why can't we divide a Planck length?

Offline TalkingBook

  • Well Established
  • *****
  • Posts: 1547
  • Superstition ain't the way...
Re: Human Language
« Reply #28 on: Jun 18, 2012, 04:10:10 AM »
Quote
I was asking for something that can be demonstrated to exist that is infinite.

A demonstrable infinity is inherently paradoxical as far as I can make out. How would you ever been able to demonstrate it without literally demonstrating that it never ends? In other words, a demonstration of something infinite would take infinite time and energy to demonstrate. Of course, the question that benschwab is posing relates to conceptual infinity, which can be expressed (or demonstrated) by simple definition - n+1. Conceptually, there are infinite points on a ruler - length/2 ad infinitum.

Since the proposition at hand is that language is incapable of expressing certain concepts, I'm not sure that it matters much if there are demonstrable infinities in the world or not. There's quite a bit of philosophical (and probably psychological) discussion about whether or not concepts are necessarily linguistic in nature or not, with a major of thinkers coming down on the side of there being non-linguistic concepts. But things go much deeper than this. For example, another important strain of research asks whether or not our experience of the world is necessarily conceptual or not, with more empirically minded philosophers speaking out in favor of a model of the mind which includes non-conceptual experience. This relates very much to the color wheel discussion in this thread, but it would take too long to explain here. If anyone's interested, read up on the "fineness of grain" argument.

In the end, I think it's a safe assumption that we are not capable of truly comprehending even conceptual infinities. That is, we can define them easily enough (omniscience, n+1), and can use these definitions and terms in a meaningful and useful way; however, we cannot really wrap our minds around them, as this would amount to about the same thing as demonstrating them - we'd need infinite time and energy to even make an attempt of it. If this is correct, then the question "can finite language express infinite concepts" is based upon the faulty assumption that while our language is employing a mere symbolic representation of infinity, our concepts can be genuine representations of infinity. Of course, a necessarily symbolic representation of infinity doesn't automatically make such concepts useless - the great success of mathematical work with infinities is proof of this. Whether or other concepts including infinity, like those commonly attributed to God, can be employed in an equally productive manner is another question entirely.
"Truth gains more even by the errors of one who, with due study, and preparation, thinks for himself, than by the true opinions of those who only hold them because they do not suffer themselves to think." ~John Stuart Mill, On Liberty (1859)

Offline benschwab

  • Off to a Start
  • *
  • Posts: 47
  • At-least Marginally Better than a Head Injury
Re: Human Language
« Reply #29 on: Jun 18, 2012, 07:43:40 AM »

That's a mathematical infinity, not an actual one. I was asking for something that can be demonstrated to exist that is infinite. Not a concept or an idea, but a thing.


I still think there is a good chance that we are talking past each other.  It would help to have a clear idea between what qualifies infinity as a concept or idea and what qualifies infinity as a thing.  Without working definitions then miscommunication and confusion will arise.  The best thing to do to really get at the issues you raise would be to explain what you mean by "infinity actually existing."  What's a clear definition of that?  Equivalently, what would qualify as infinity actually existing?

And for the record, there aren't an infinite number of points on a ruler, because there is a smallest possible distance - the Planck Length (1.616199(97)×10−35 metres), and any distance consists of a finite number of them.


As far as I know this is a gross misunderstanding of the Planck Length.  If I understand your assertion correctly, it is that there exists a three dimensional grid in space in which everything occurs and the minimum difference between any two points on the grid is the Planck Length.  I see no reason to believe (accept) this and reasons not to.

My experience with quantum mechanics (limited mind you, just an undergraduate experience) is that wave functions are defined on a non-discrete typology of space and a completely precise position measurement (impractical by actual humans) could result in any of the infinite number of points even in a confined environment (eg. infinite square well).

Such an assertion also seams to violate relativity in two ways.  One is that if a grid existed and I was moving relative to that grid length contraction would shrink the grid and I could measure differences in distances smaller then the Planck length.  If I still had to only be able to measure differences in distances to be an integer multiple of a Planck length, then I wouldn't be able to make any distance measurements in a frame that is not moving relative to me as the grid would need to be of infinite length (or very large length if there exists some maximum speed limit less then that of c).  One could say that in any rest frame the grid is of Planck length and one can measure the lengths smaller then the Planck length.  If this is the case then there would indeed again be an infinite number of points along the ruler because I could just send the ruler into motion.

It also seams to violate relativity in that the laws of physics would indeed be different in different inertial reference frames.  It would seam to be the case that a reference frame that is half a Planck length off and travailing with he same velocity would have different physics.  Since experiments cannot currently study nature on Planck scale, this effect hasn't been ruled out by experiment but to accept an idea that seams to violate one of the fundamental ideas of relativity would require a good reason to accept that and I fail to see one.

I should also mention that a grid idea would lead to a failure in the conservation of momentum.  This isn't a problem because it is my understanding of quantum mechanics that momentum isn't strictly conserved on Planck length scale.

It is my guess that most physicists would reject a Planck length grid idea.  If there is serious discussion within the physics community of an idea of such a grid please inform me of such.  I should state that the idea is very different then the idea of guantum foam.  Quantum foam is the proposed idea that on Planck length scales, the nature of space-time itself is effected by the uncertainty principle and that specific points in space-time itself have uncertainty.  A consequence of this would be that on a Plank length scale, the Planck length itself would be indeterminant.  This would again, create an infinite number of points along a ruler even if such a grid exists.

In any case I could be discussing an idea that you did not actually intend to propose.  I'm just using my best understanding of of what you've said.  In any case, I see reason to believe (accept) that a wave function in position space is non-trivially defined on a domain that is not quantized (thus there are an infinite number of points along a ruler) and no reason to think otherwise.

There aren't an infinite number of colours, because the frequency of light is quantized - there is a minimum amount of difference - and the difference between two colours consists of a finite number of those jumps.


It is true that the frequency of light from any single emission source is quantized but there is no reason to believe that the possible emission sources themselves are quantized.  It is clearly possible to create frequencies of light from one blackbody that another blackbody does not make.  Even if the emission sources themselves are quantized the differences in the period of allowed photons would be much smaller then Planck time.  This is actually further evidence against a Planck length grid as because blackbody radiation would create contractions in such a system.  In any case for me to believe (accept) that emission sources are quantized requires a pretty convincing argument.

The gravitational field near a black hole approaches infinity, but doesn't actually reach it because the closest you can get to a singularity is the Planck Length (at which point the gravitational field is extremely high but not infinite), and that is hidden from all exploration by the black hole's event horizon.


I included this example because infinity is a different concept in different contexts.  Most of the discussions in this thread are about infinity as a class of cardinal numbers but it has a different meaning when talking about limits.  The assertion that the closest one can get to a singularity is the Planck length is problematic as I don't know why I should believe (accept) this.  From my discussion above, it seams that I shouldn't.  The question about being able to explore this is related to the difference between discussing what exists in nature and the ability of humans to actively explore that nature in experiment.

Etc.


If you're willing to discuss this et cetera without just glossing over it I'm willing to do so.

I was asking for something that can be demonstrated to exist that is infinite.


This seams to be important.  What do you mean by "demonstrated."  It is likely that there are elements to nature that humans will never demonstrate in experiment.  Some of these elements can be explored as a consequence of what is demonstrable by experiment.  It may be the case that humans will never be able to "demonstrate infinity" by experiment while being able to rigorously infer infinity be the consequences of experiments.  This also goes back to infinity as it applies to the physical world and infinity as it applies to homo sapien thoughts including how homo sapiens perceive that physical world.  The two are vary different things.

Why should one limit oneself to what humans can differentiate between?



I still don't see any reason to impose this limitation is we are talking about infinity in the physical world.

Also, while this (how infinity applies to the physical world) is an interesting tangent (and it is) it is still not necessary to discuss the original question and other tangents more directly related to it.  One need not argue that infinity is impossible to argue that human language is finite and seams to be a very expensive path to reach that conclusion.
Oh Yeah!